Has anyone ever considered that the whistle blower was a Ukranian?
Think about it. It makes perfect sense. Note that as a result of this revelation the moneys were released, without any apparent need for further investigation of Ukranian corruption.
The reason why the whistle blower made that call in the first place, is the assurance of anonymity. If it were revealed that the whistle blower was Ukranian, Trump would have a legitimate excuse to withdraw to aid permanently under the excuse of betrayal by Ukraine.
Ask yourself, if the promised moneys were indeed held up for legitimate corruption concerns, why should a whistle blower (of any origin) have any effect on the legitimate functions of the US to investigate corruption?
The moneys were released immediately after the release of knowledge of a whistle blower, which means that any further investigation of corruption was suddenly no longer considered necessary.
Does any of that make sense?